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The Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) certification exam is one of the highly sought-after certifications in the information technology (IT) industry. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is designed for professionals who are experienced in IT risk management and control, and can demonstrate their expertise in managing and mitigating risks related to information systems. The CRISC certification is globally recognized and is awarded by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA).
ISACA CRISC certification is an essential credential for IT risk management professionals. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification demonstrates an individual's ability to design, implement, monitor and maintain effective risk management programs. The CRISC certification exam is a comprehensive exam that covers four domains and requires a passing score of 450 out of 800 points.
NEW QUESTION # 885
When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?
- A. Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.
- B. BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
- C. BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.
- D. Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 886
A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:
- A. an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.
- B. mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.
- C. the current level of risk is within tolerance.
- D. this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 887
Which of the following should be considered to ensure that risk responses that are adopted are cost- effective and are aligned with business objectives?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
- A. Recognize the business risk appetite
- B. Adopt only pre-defined risk responses of business
- C. Follow an integrated approach in business
- D. Identify the risk in business terms
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk responses require a formal approach to issues, opportunities and events to ensure that solutions are cost-effective and are aligned with business objectives. The following should be considered:
While preparing the risk response, identify the risk in business terms like loss of productivity, disclosure
of confidential information, lost opportunity costs, etc.
Recognize the business risk appetite.
Follow an integrated approach in business.
Risk responses requiring an investment should be supported by a carefully planned business case that justifies the expenditure outlines alternatives and describes the justification for the alternative selected.
Incorrect Answers:
C: There is no such requirement to follow the pre-defined risk responses. If some new risk responses are discovered during the risk management of a particular project, they should be noted down in lesson leaned document so that project manager working on some other project could also utilize them.
NEW QUESTION # 888
You are the risk control professional of your enterprise. You have implemented a tool that correlates information from multiple sources. To which of the following do this monitoring tool focuses?
- A. Transaction data
- B. System changes
- C. Process integrity
- D. Configuration settings
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Monitoring tools that focuses on transaction data generally correlate information from one system to another, such as employee data from the human resources (HR) system with spending information from the expense system or the payroll system.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Process integrity is confirmed within the system, it dose not need monitoring.
C: Configuration settings are generally compared against predefined values and not based on the correlation between multiple sources.
D: System changes are compared from a previous state to the current state, it dose not correlate information from multiple sources.
NEW QUESTION # 889
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:
- A. backup recovery requests.
- B. restoration monitoring reports.
- C. recurring restore failures.
- D. resources to monitor backups.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 890
Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?
- A. Retention of test data and results for review purposes
- B. An established process for project change management
- C. Business managements review of functional requirements
- D. Segregation between development, test, and production
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development is an established process for project change management. Scope creep is the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope due to changes in requirements, specifications, or expectations. A project change management process can help to prevent or reduce scope creep by defining the procedures for requesting, reviewing, approving, and implementing changes in the project. Retention of test data and results, business management review of functional requirements, and segregation between development, test, and production are other possible controls, but they are not as effective as a project change management process. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
NEW QUESTION # 891
Which of the following provides the MOST important information to facilitate a risk response decision?
- A. Key risk indicators
- B. Industry best practices
- C. Risk appetite
- D. Audit findings
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives.
Risk appetite provides the most important information to facilitate a risk response decision, as it defines the boundaries and expectations for the risk management process. Risk appetite helps to determine the acceptable level of variation around the objectives, and to prioritize and allocate resources for the risk responses. Risk appetite also helps to align the risk management program with the enterprise's strategy, culture, and values.
The other options are not as important as risk appetite, as they provide different types of information for the risk management process:
* Audit findings are the results of the independent and objective examination of the risk management program, such as by internal or external auditors. Audit findings provide assurance and feedback on the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management program, and may identify gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. Audit findings may influence the risk response decision, but they are not as essential as risk appetite, as they are based on the existing or past performance of the risk management program, and may not reflect the future or potential risks or opportunities.
* Key risk indicators are the metrics that measure the changes in the level of risk exposure, such as by monitoring the risk drivers, triggers, or events. Key risk indicators provide information on the current or emerging risks, and may alert the enterprise to take action or adjust the risk response. Key risk indicators may influence the risk response decision, but they are not as essential as risk appetite, as they are based on the observed or estimated data or trends, and may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the risks.
* Industry best practices are the methods or techniques that have been proven to be effective or efficient in managing risks, such as by benchmarking or adopting standards or frameworks. Industry best practices provide guidance and direction on how to implement the risk management program, and may improve the quality or consistency of the risk response. Industry best practices may influence the risk response decision, but they are not as essential as risk appetite, as they are based on the experiences or
* recommendations of other enterprises, and may not be suitable or applicable for the specific context or objectives of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1.1, pp. 18-19.
NEW QUESTION # 892
Which of the following would provide executive management with the BEST information to make risk decisions as a result of a risk assessment?
- A. A quantitative presentation of risk assessment results
- B. A companion of risk assessment results to the desired state
- C. An assessment of organizational maturity levels and readiness
- D. A qualitative presentation of risk assessment results
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk assessment is the process of analyzing and evaluating the likelihood and consequences of the identified risks, and comparing them with the risk criteria and appetite. Risk assessment results can provide valuable information to support risk decisions, such as selecting and implementing the appropriate risk response strategies. The best way to provide executive management with the best information to make risk decisions as a result of a risk assessment is to present a comparison of risk assessment results to the desired state. The desired state is the optimal level of risk exposure that the organization wants to achieve, based on its risk objectives, goals, and strategy. A comparison of risk assessment results to the desired state can help executive management understand the current and potential gap between the actual and target risk levels, and prioritize the most critical and relevant risks that need attention and action. A comparison of risk assessment results to the desired state can also help executive management evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing risk response, and identify the opportunities and challenges for improvement. A comparison of risk assessment results to the desired state can also help communicate and justify the risk decisions to other stakeholders, and obtain their feedback and approval. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative - ISACA, Risk Management Essentials: How to Develop a Risk Profile (TRN2-J07), Risk Response Strategies: Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept.
NEW QUESTION # 893
Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?
- A. Findings of the most recent audit
- B. A review of compliance regulations
- C. Results of a risk forecasting analysis
- D. Results of the latest risk assessment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 894
Which of the following control detects problem before it can occur?
- A. Preventative control
- B. Detective control
- C. Deterrent control
- D. Compensation control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Preventative controls are the controls that detect the problem before it occurs. They attempt to predict potential problems and make adjustments to prevent those problems to occur in near future. This prediction is being made by monitoring both the system's operations and its inputs.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Deterrent controls are similar to the preventative controls, but they diminish or reverse the attraction of the environment to prevent risk from occurring instead of making adjustments to the environment.
B: Detective controls simply detect and report on the occurrence of a problems. They identify specific symptoms to potential problems.
C: Compensation controls ensure that normal business operations continue by applying appropriate resource.
NEW QUESTION # 895
A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?
- A. Senior management allocation of risk management resources
- B. The organizations risk appetite and tolerance
- C. The organization's strategic risk management projects
- D. Senior management roles and responsibilities
Answer: B
Explanation:
The organization's risk appetite and tolerance are the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the level of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is prepared to accept. Senior management plays a key role in defining and communicating the risk appetite and tolerance, as well as ensuring that they are aligned with the organization's strategy, culture, and values. By covering these topics in the training session, the risk practitioner can help senior management understand and articulate the risk preferences and boundaries of the organization, as well as monitor and adjust them as needed. The other options are not the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management, although they may be relevant and useful. The organization's strategic risk management projects are specific initiatives or activities that aim to identify, assess, and treat risks that may affect the organization's objectives. Senior management roles and responsibilities are the duties and expectations that senior management has in relation to risk management, such as providing leadership, oversight, and support.
Senior management allocation of risk management resources is the process of assigning and prioritizing the human, financial, and technical resources that are needed to implement and maintain risk management activities. These topics are more operational and tactical than strategic and may vary depending on the context and scope of the risk management function. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 40-411; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 732
NEW QUESTION # 896
Which of the following considerations should be taken into account while selecting risk indicators that ensures greater buy-in and ownership?
- A. Lag indicator
- B. Root cause
- C. Lead indicator
- D. Stakeholder
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
To ensure greater buy-in and ownership, risk indicators should be selected with the involvement of relevant stakeholders. Risk indicators should be identified for all stakeholders and should not focus solely on the more operational or strategic side of risk.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Role of lag indicators is to ensure that risk after events have occurred is being indicated.
B: Lead indicators indicate which capabilities are in place to prevent events from occurring. They do not play any role in ensuring greater buy-in and ownership.
C: Root cause is considered while selecting risk indicator but it does not ensure greater buy-in or ownership.
NEW QUESTION # 897
A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:
- A. optimized.
- B. mature
- C. inefficient.
- D. ineffective.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The result of a control working as desired, but having an annual cost of maintenance that exceeds the expected annual loss exposure, is that the control is inefficient, as it implies that the control is not cost-effective or optimal, and may require a review or adjustment. The other options are not the correct results, as they do not reflect the performance or adequacy of the control, but rather the maturity, effectiveness, or optimization of the control, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
NEW QUESTION # 898
A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r
- A. Prepare a business case for the response options.
- B. Identify resources for implementing responses.
- C. Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.
- D. Update the risk register with the results.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The risk practitioner's next step after identifying risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios in a recent risk workshop is to update the risk register with the results, as it involves documenting and communicating the risk information and decisions, and maintaining the accuracy and completeness of the risk register. Preparing a business case for the response options, identifying resources for implementing responses, and developing a mechanism for monitoring residual risk are possible steps, but they are not the next step, as they require the prior update of the risk register with the new risk information and decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
NEW QUESTION # 899
An organization is considering acquiring a new line of business and wants to develop new IT risk scenarios to guide its decisions. Which of the following would add the MOST value to the new risk scenarios?
- A. Expected losses
- B. Organizational threats
- C. Cost-benefit analysis
- D. Audit findings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 900
Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?
- A. Vulnerability assessment
- B. Business impact analysis (BIA)
- C. Root cause analysis
- D. Penetration testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
A vulnerability assessment is a process that identifies and quantifies vulnerabilities in a system. It is the most effective process to determine the relevance of threats for risk scenarios as it helps in identifying potential security threats and vulnerabilities, quantifying the seriousness of each, and prioritizing techniques to mitigate attack and protect IT resources1.
References
2Identifying and Estimating Cybersecurity Risk for Enterprise Risk Management
3Threat Modeling Process | OWASP Foundation
1Threat modeling explained: A process for anticipating cyber attacks
4Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment: A Guide - SafetyCulture
5How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA
NEW QUESTION # 901
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The CRISC certification exam is a computer-based exam that consists of 150 multiple-choice questions. Candidates have four hours to complete the exam. CRISC exam is offered during three testing windows each year and is available at various testing centers around the world. Candidates must meet certain eligibility requirements, such as having a minimum of three years of relevant work experience in IT risk management and information systems control.
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