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CCSP Dumps Full Questions - Exam Study Guide
ISC CCSP (Certified Cloud Security Professional) Exam is a globally recognized certification for individuals who work with cloud computing technology. It is designed to validate a candidate's knowledge and skills in cloud security, and demonstrate their ability to manage and secure cloud environments. The CCSP certification is offered by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC)², which is a non-profit organization that is dedicated to providing education and certification programs in the field of information security.
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ISC CCSP Certification Exam Reference
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which type of cloud service category would having a vendor-neutral encryption scheme for data at rest (DAR) be the MOST important?
- A. Public
- B. Private
- C. Community
- D. Hybrid
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 132
When a system needs to be exposed to the public Internet, what type of secure system would be used to perform only the desired operations?
- A. Honeypot
- B. Bastion
- C. Firewall
- D. Proxy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A bastion is a system that is exposed to the public Internet to perform a specific function, but it is highly restricted and secured to just that function. Any nonessential services and access are removed from the bastion so that security countermeasures and monitoring can be focused just on the bastion's specific duties. A honeypot is a system designed to look like a production system to entice attackers, but it does not contain any real data. It is used for learning about types of attacks and enabling countermeasures for them. A firewall is used within a network to limit access between IP addresses and ports. A proxy server provides additional security to and rulesets for network traffic that is allowed to pass through it to a service destination.
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following is not included in the OWASP Top Ten web application security threats?
Response:
- A. Internal theft
- B. Sensitive data exposure
- C. Cross-site scripting
- D. Injection
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 134
The BIA can be used to provide information about all the following, except:
- A. Secure acquisition
- B. Selection of security controls
- C. Risk analysis
- D. BC/DR planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
The business impact analysis gathers asset valuation information that is beneficial for risk analysis and selection of security controls (it helps avoid putting the ten-dollar lock on the five-dollar bicycle), and criticality information that helps in BC/DR planning by letting the organization understand which systems, data, and personnel are necessary to continuously maintain. However, it does not aid secure acquisition efforts, since the assets examined by the BIA have already been acquired.
NEW QUESTION # 135
An audit scope statement defines the limits and outcomes from an audit.
Which of the following would NOT be included as part of an audit scope statement?
- A. Billing
- B. Exclusions
- C. Certification
- D. Reports
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Billing for an audit, or other cost-related items, would not be part of an audit scope statement and would instead be handled prior to the actual audit as part of the contract between the organization and auditors.
Reports, exclusions to the scope of the audit, and required certifications on behalf of the systems or auditors are all crucial elements of an audit scope statement.
NEW QUESTION # 136
Which technique involves replacing values within a specific data field to protect sensitive data?
- A. Obfuscation
- B. Masking
- C. Tokenization
- D. Anonymization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Masking involves replacing specific data within a data set with new values. For example, with credit card fields, as most who have ever purchased anything online can attest, nearly the entire credit card number is masked with a character such as an asterisk, with the last four digits left visible for identification and confirmation.
NEW QUESTION # 137
What is one of the benefits of implementing an egress monitoring solution?
Response:
- A. Protecting against natural disasters
- B. Inventorying data assets
- C. Interviewing data owners
- D. Preventing DDoS attacks
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which of the following security technologies is commonly used to give administrators access into trust zones within an environment?
- A. HTTPS
- B. WAF
- C. VPN
- D. IPSec
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Virtual private networks (VPNs) are commonly used to allow access into trust zones. Via a VPN, access can be controlled and logged and only allowed through secure channels by authorized users. It also adds an additional layer of encryption and protection to communications.
NEW QUESTION # 139
With a federated identity system, where would a user perform their authentication when requesting services or application access?
- A. Third-party authentication system
- B. Their home organization
- C. Cloud provider
- D. The application
Answer: B
Explanation:
With a federated identity system, a user will perform authentication with their home organization, and the application will accept the authentication tokens and user information from the identity provider in order to grant access. The purpose of a federated system is to allow users to authenticate from their home organization.
Therefore, using the application or a third-party authentication system would be contrary to the purpose of a federated system because it necessitates the creation of additional accounts. The use of a cloud provider would not be relevant to the operations of a federated system.
NEW QUESTION # 140
What aspect of data center planning occurs first?
- A. Policy revision
- B. Physical design
- C. Audit
- D. Logical design
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 141
Which aspect of archiving must be tested regularly for the duration of retention requirements?
- A. Portability
- B. Availability
- C. Recoverability
- D. Auditability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
In order for any archiving system to be deemed useful and compliant, regular tests must be performed to ensure the data can still be recovered and accessible, should it ever be needed, for the duration of the retention requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 142
Within an IaaS implementation, which of the following would NOT be a metric used to quantify service charges for the cloud customer?
- A. Memory
- B. Number of users
- C. CPU
- D. Storage
Answer: B
Explanation:
Within IaaS, where the cloud customer is responsible for everything beyond the physical network, the number of users on a system would not be a factor in billing or service charges. The core cloud services for IaaS are based on the memory, storage, and CPU requirements of the cloud customer. Because the cloud customer with IaaS is responsible for its own images and deployments, these components comprise the basis of its cloud provisioning and measured services billing.
NEW QUESTION # 143
Which of the following are not examples of personnel controls?
- A. Reference checks
- B. Continuous security training
- C. Background checks
- D. Strict access control mechanisms
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 144
A comprehensive BCDR plan will encapsulate many or most of the traditional concerns of operating a system in any data center.
However, what is one consideration that is often overlooked with the formulation of a BCDR plan?
- A. Availability of staff
- B. Change management processes
- C. Restoration of services
- D. Capacity at the BCDR site
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
BCDR planning tends to focus so much on the failing over of services in the case of a disaster that recovery back to primary hosting after the disaster is often overlooked. In many instances, this can be just as complex a process as failing over, if not more so. Availability of staff, capacity at the BCDR site, and change management processes are typically integral to BCDR plans and are common components of them.
NEW QUESTION # 145
Which of the following security technologies is commonly used to give administrators access into trust zones within an environment?
- A. HTTPS
- B. WAF
- C. VPN
- D. IPSec
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Virtual private networks (VPNs) are commonly used to allow access into trust zones. Via a VPN, access can be controlled and logged and only allowed through secure channels by authorized users. It also adds an additional layer of encryption and protection to communications.
NEW QUESTION # 146
A cloud data encryption situation where the cloud customer retains control of the encryption keys and the cloud provider only processes and stores the data could be considered a ____________.
- A. Threat
- B. Risk
- C. Case of infringing on the rights of the provider
- D. Hybrid cloud deployment model
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 147
What is the biggest challenge to data discovery in a cloud environment?
- A. Format
- B. Multitenancy
- C. Location
- D. Ownership
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
With the distributed nature of cloud environments, the foremost challenge for data discovery is awareness of the location of data and keeping track of it during the constant motion of cloud storage systems.
NEW QUESTION # 148
What must SOAP rely on for security since it does not provide security as a built-in capability?
- A. TLS
- B. Tokenization
- C. SSL
- D. Encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) for data passing, and it must rely on the encryption of those data packages for security. TLS and SSL (before it was deprecated) represent two commons approaches to using encryption for protection of data transmissions. However, they are only two possible options and do not encapsulate the overall concept the question is looking for.
Tokenization, which involves the replacement of sensitive data with opaque values, would not be appropriate for use with SOAP because the actual data is needed by the services.
NEW QUESTION # 149
What concept does the "D" represent with the STRIDE threat model?
- A. Data breach
- B. Data loss
- C. Denial of service
- D. Distributed
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Any application can be a possible target of denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. From the application side, the developers should minimize how many operations are performed for non-authenticated users. This will keep the application running as quickly as possible and using the least amount of system resources to help minimize the impact of any such attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 150
Which is the lowest level of the CSA STAR program?
- A. Continuous monitoring
- B. Attestation
- C. Self-assessment
- D. Hybridization
Answer: C
Explanation:
The lowest level is Level 1, which is self-assessment, Level 2 is an external third-party attestation, and Level 3 is a continuous-monitoring program. Hybridization does not exist as part of the CSA STAR program.
NEW QUESTION # 151
The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top Ten is a list of web application security threats that is composed by a member-driven OWASP committee of application development experts and published approximately every 24 months. The 2013 OWASP Top Ten list includes "injection." In most cases, what is the method for reducing the risk of an injection attack?
Response:
- A. Input validation/bounds checking
- B. Physical locks
- C. Hardening the OS
- D. User training
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 152
Which type of software is most likely to be reviewed by the most personnel, with the most varied perspectives?
Response:
- A. Open source software
- B. Database management software
- C. Secure software
- D. Proprietary software
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 153
The European Union passed the first major regulation declaring data privacy to be a human right. In what year did it go into effect?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Adopted in 1995, Directive 95/46 EC establishes strong data protection and policy requirements, including the declaring of data privacy to be a human right. It establishes that an individual has the right to be notified when their personal data is being access or processed, that it only will ever be accessed for legitimate purposes, and that data will only be accessed to the exact extent it needs to be for the particular process or request.
NEW QUESTION # 154
The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats to organizations participating in cloud computing.
According to the CSA, what is one reason the threat of insecure interfaces and APIs is so prevalent in cloud computing?
Response:
- A. Most of the cloud customer's interaction with resources will be performed through APIs.
- B. APIs are known carcinogens.
- C. APIs are inherently insecure.
- D. Attackers have already published vulnerabilities for all known APIs.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 155
Which data sanitation method is also commonly referred to as "zeroing"?
- A. Blanking
- B. Deleting
- C. Nullification
- D. Overwriting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The zeroing of data--or the writing of null values or arbitrary data to ensure deletion has been fully completed--is officially referred to as overwriting. Nullification, deleting, and blanking are provided as distractor terms.
NEW QUESTION # 156
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