Pass EMC D-CSF-SC-23 Exam Info and Free Practice Test
New 2025 Latest Questions D-CSF-SC-23 Dumps - Use Updated EMC Exam
EMC D-CSF-SC-23 certification exam is a valuable credential for IT professionals seeking to demonstrate their expertise in implementing and using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. D-CSF-SC-23 exam validates the examinees' knowledge and skills in identifying and managing cybersecurity risks, developing and implementing policies and procedures, and complying with regulatory requirements. With the increasing demand for cybersecurity professionals worldwide, the NIST Cybersecurity Framework 2023 certification can help IT professionals stand out in the job market and advance their careers.
EMC D-CSF-SC-23 certification exam is an industry-recognized certification that can advance a cybersecurity professional's career. NIST Cybersecurity Framework 2023 Exam certification demonstrates a candidate's proficiency in implementing and managing cybersecurity programs based on the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, which is a widely recognized industry standard. Cybersecurity professionals who hold this certification are highly sought-after by organizations looking to secure their information systems and protect against cyber threats.
NEW QUESTION # 45
What is part of the Pre-Recovery phase?
- A. Backup validation
- B. Restore assets
- C. Monitor assets
- D. Validate functionality
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 46
Refer to the exhibit.
What type of item appears in the second column of the table?
- A. Subcategory
- B. Informative Reference
- C. Function
- D. Tier
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 47
What procedure is designed to enable security personnel to detect, analyze, contain, eradicate, respond, and recover from malicious computer incidents such as unauthorized changes to system hardware, software, or data?
- A. Disaster Recovery Plan
- B. Incident Response Plan
- C. Crisis Communication Plan
- D. Emergency Analysis Plan
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 48
Your firewall blocked several machines on your network from connecting to a malicious IP address.
After reviewing the logs, the CSIRT discovers all Microsoft Windows machines on the network have been affected based on a newly published CVE. Based on the IRP, what should be done immediately?
- A. Contain the breach
- B. Eradicate the breach
- C. Revise the IRP
- D. Update the asset inventory
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 49
Rank order the relative severity of impact to an organization of each plan, where "1" signifies the most impact and "4" signifies the least impact.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 50
What is a consideration when performing data collection in Information Security Continuous Monitoring?
- A. Collection is used only for compliance requirements.
- B. The more data collected, the better chances to catch an anomaly.
- C. Data is best captured as it traverses the network.
- D. Data collection efficiency is increased through automation.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 51
A company suffers a data breach and determines that the threat actors stole or compromised 10,000 user profiles. The company had planned for such a breach and determined the loss would be around $2 million. Soon after restoration, the company stock suffered a 30% drop and the loss was nearly $20 million. In addition, the company received negative press.
Which area of risk did the business forget to account for?
- A. Litigation or Legal Risk
- B. Business Operational Risk
- C. Vulnerability risk
- D. Reputational Risk
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 52
An Internet-connected file server compromised by a threat that leaked all data. The data was destroyed to cover all tracks. The file server has high availability capabilities to handle critical workloads.
The operations team took only 15 minutes to restore workload routing to a different node.
What part(s) of the CIA Triad was affected?
- A. C, A
- B. A only
- C. C, I
- D. A, I
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 53
What determines the approach taken to communicate to customers, press, investors, and regulators regarding a breach?
- A. Executive approval
- B. Change Management Plan
- C. External Communication Plan
- D. Review Board approval
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 54
A company failed to detect a breach of their production system. The breach originated from a legacy system that was originally thought to be decommissioned. It turned out that system was still operating and occasionally connected to the production system for reporting purposes.
Which part of the process failed?
- A. PR.DS
- B. DE.CM
- C. ID.BE
- D. ID.AM
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 55
A CISO is looking for a solution to lower costs, enhance overall efficiency, and improve the reliability of monitoring security related information.
Which ISCM feature is recommended?
- A. Collection
- B. Automation
- C. Reporting
- D. Provisioning
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 56
What process is used to identify an organization's physical, digital, and human resource, as required in their Business Impact Analysis?
- A. Risk Management Strategy
- B. Risk Assessment
- C. Asset Inventory
- D. Risk Treatment
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 57
What activity informs situational awareness of the security status of an organization's systems?
- A. IDP
- B. ISCM
- C. RMF
- D. DPI
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 58
At what cyber kill chain stage do attackers use malware to exploit specific software or hardware vulnerabilities on the target, based on the information retrieved at the reconnaissance stage?
- A. Delivery
- B. Weaponization
- C. Installation
- D. Reconnaissance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 59
What is the primary driver of a successful implementation of a security policy within a company?
- A. Management commitment
- B. Change management process
- C. Regular review of processes and procedures
- D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 60
What are the four tiers of integration within the NIST Cybersecurity Framework?
- A. Risk Informed, Selective, Repeatable, and Partial
- B. Corrective, Risk Informed, Repeatable, and Adaptive
- C. Partial, Risk Informed, Repeatable, and Adaptive
- D. Selective, Repeatable, Partial, and Adaptive
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 61
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