Excellent 156-215.80 Updated 2022 Dumps With 100% Exam Passing Guarantee [Q177-Q200]

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Excellent 156-215.80 Updated 2022 Dumps With 100% Exam Passing Guarantee

Best way to practice test for CheckPoint 156-215.80


Some of the top companies with tons of opportunities for CCSA certified IT specialists are also listed below:

  • Marine Corps Community Services;
  • Natixis;
  • Gotham Technology Group;
  • Check Point Software Technologies, Inc.
  • Garmin International;

 

NEW QUESTION 177
Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?

  • A. Full Access
  • B. Super User
  • C. Read Only All
  • D. Auditor

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To create a new permission profile:
1. In SmartConsole, go to Manage & Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Permission Profiles.
2. Click New Profile.
The New Profile window opens.
3. Enter a unique name for the profile.
4. Select a profile type:
Read/Write All - Administrators can make changes

Auditor (Read Only All) - Administrators can see information but cannot make changes

Customized - Configure custom settings

5. Click OK.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/124265

 

NEW QUESTION 178
You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

  • A. Logging has disk space issues. Change logging storage options on the logging server or Security Management Server properties and install database.
  • B. Log Trimming is enabled.
  • C. Content Awareness is not enabled.
  • D. Identity Awareness is not enabled.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
The most likely reason for the logs data to stop is the low disk space on the logging device, which can be the Management Server or the Gateway Server.

 

NEW QUESTION 179
Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

  • A. On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels
  • B. On specific tunnels for specific gateways
  • C. On specific tunnels in the community
  • D. On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Each VPN tunnel in the community may be set to be a Permanent Tunnel. Since Permanent Tunnels are constantly monitored, if the VPN tunnel is down, then a log, alert, or user defined action, can be issued. A VPN tunnel is monitored by periodically sending "tunnel test" packets. As long as responses to the packets are received the VPN tunnel is considered "up." If no response is received within a given time period, the VPN tunnel is considered "down." Permanent Tunnels can only be established between Check Point Security Gateways. The configuration of Permanent Tunnels takes place on the community level and:
* Can be specified for an entire community. This option sets every VPN tunnel in the community as permanent.
* Can be specified for a specific Security Gateway. Use this option to configure specific Security Gateways to have permanent tunnels.
* Can be specified for a single VPN tunnel. This feature allows configuring specific tunnels between specific Security Gateways as permanent.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/ R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/14018

 

NEW QUESTION 180
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

  • A. There is one default user that cannot be deleted.
  • B. There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.
  • C. There are two default users that cannot be deleted and one SmartConsole Administrator.
  • D. There is one default user that can be deleted.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
These users are created by default and cannot be deleted:
* admin - Has full read/write capabilities for all Gaia features, from the WebUI and the CLI. This user has a User ID of 0, and therefore has all of the privileges of a root user.
* monitor - Has read-only capabilities for all features in the WebUI and the CLI, and can change its own password. You must give a password for this user before the account can be used.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm

 

NEW QUESTION 181
Fill in the blank: The __________ is used to obtain identification and security information about network
users.

  • A. User Directory
  • B. UserCheck
  • C. User server
  • D. User index

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 182
Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

  • A. The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.
  • B. Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.
  • C. Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.
  • D. Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f850d1640792cf885336cc6ae8b2743/ CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=1517092603_dd917544d92dccc060e5b25d28a46f79&xtn=.pdf

 

NEW QUESTION 183
Once a license is activated, a ________ should be installed.

  • A. License Management file
  • B. Security Gateway Contract file
  • C. Service Contract file
  • D. License Contract file

Answer: C

Explanation:
Service Contract File
Following the activation of the license, a Service Contract File should be installed. This file contains important information about all subscriptions purchased for a specific device and is installed via SmartUpdate. A detailed explanation of the Service Contract File can be found in sk33089.

 

NEW QUESTION 184
Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?

  • A. show confd configuration all
  • B. show confd configuration
  • C. show configuration
  • D. show configuration all

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/0c/0caa9c0daa67e0c1f2af3dd06790bc81/ CP_R77_Gaia_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479835768_76058f0fc4209e38bc801cd58a85d7c5&xtn=.pdf

 

NEW QUESTION 185
What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

  • A. Check Point Upgrade Installation Service
  • B. Check Point Upgrade Service Engine
  • C. Check Point INSPECT Engine
  • D. Check Point Update Engine

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/129978

 

NEW QUESTION 186
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

  • A. There is one default user that cannot be deleted.
  • B. There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.
  • C. There are two default users that cannot be deleted and one SmartConsole Administrator.
  • D. There is one default user that can be deleted.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Exlantion: These users are created by default and cannot be deleted:
admin - Has full read/write capabilities for all Gaia features, from the WebUI and the CLI. This user

has a User ID of 0, and therefore has all of the privileges of a root user.
monitor - Has read-only capabilities for all features in the WebUI and the CLI, and can change its

own password. You must give a password for this user before the account can be used.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm

 

NEW QUESTION 187
Why would an administrator see the message below?

  • A. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.
  • B. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.
  • C. A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be packed up first before proceeding.
  • D. A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 188
When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is
saved to the:

  • A. SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.
  • B. There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.
  • C. Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.
  • D. Security Management Server's /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 189
Fill in the blank: RADIUS protocol uses ______ to communicate with the gateway.

  • A. UDP
  • B. CCP
  • C. TDP
  • D. HTTP

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Parameters:

 

NEW QUESTION 190
DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

  • A. Unified Policies
  • B. Standard Policies
  • C. Inspection Policies
  • D. Shared Policies

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The Shared policies are installed with the Access Control Policy.

References:

 

NEW QUESTION 191
CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.
The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

  • A. Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.
  • B. Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.
  • C. Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.
  • D. The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 192
Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen.


After being authenticated by the Security Gateways, a user starts a HTTP connection to a Web site. What happens when the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line? The:

  • A. user is prompted to authenticate from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter his username and password for Client Authentication
  • B. FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.
  • C. user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateways again.
  • D. FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 193
Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

  • A. Threat Prevention
  • B. QoS
  • C. Access Control
  • D. Threat Emulation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Check Point's QoS Solution
QoS is a policy-based QoS management solution from Check Point Software Technologies Ltd., satisfies your needs for a bandwidth management solution. QoS is a unique, software-only based application that manages traffic end-to-end across networks, by distributing enforcement throughout network hardware and software.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_QoS_AdminGuide/index.html

 

NEW QUESTION 194
What is the appropriate default Gaia Portal address?

  • A. HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]
  • B. HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]:4434
  • C. HTTP://[IPADDRESS]
  • D. HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]:8080

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 195
Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?

  • A. Unlock database lock
  • B. Unlock database override
  • C. Lock database user
  • D. Lock database override

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Obtaining a Configuration Lock
lock database override
unlock database

 

NEW QUESTION 196
You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don't have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

  • A. fw ctl miltik pq enable
  • B. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on
  • C. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9
  • D. fw ctl multik set_mode 9

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?
eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk105261

 

NEW QUESTION 197
What does the "unknown" SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?

  • A. There is no connection between the Security Gateway and SMS.
  • B. The SIC activation key is not known by any administrator.
  • C. SIC activation key requires a reset.
  • D. The SMS can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The most typical status is Communicating. Any other status indicates that the SIC communication is problematic. For example, if the SIC status is Unknown then there is no connection between the Gateway and the Security Management server. If the SIC status is Not Communicating, the Security Management server is able to contact the gateway, but SIC communication cannot be established.
References:

 

NEW QUESTION 198
What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_"cpview process ID".
cap"number of captures"?

  • A. Space bar
  • B. S
  • C. W
  • D. C

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 199
The _________ software blade enables Application Security policies to allow, block, or limit website access based on user, group, and machine identities.

  • A. URL Filtering
  • B. Application Control
  • C. Threat Emulation
  • D. Data Awareness

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 200
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