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NEW QUESTION # 76
Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) test requires the whole organization to participate in a scheduled disaster scenario without performing all of the actual tasks?
- A. Dry run
- B. Parallel
- C. Tabletop
- D. Full
Answer: A
Explanation:
A dry run disaster recovery plan test requires broad organizational participation in a simulated disaster scenario without executing all production-impacting tasks. Managing Cloud principles explain that dry run testing validates coordination, communication, and procedural readiness while avoiding the risks of full operational disruption.
In a dry run, teams follow documented recovery steps conceptually or in limited execution, verifying that dependencies, responsibilities, and sequencing are correct. This approach provides higher fidelity than tabletop exercises, which are discussion-based, while avoiding the operational risks of full or parallel tests.
Parallel tests involve running recovery systems alongside production, and full tests execute all recovery actions, often causing service disruption. Therefore, a dry run offers a balanced method to test preparedness across the organization without full execution.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which risk is assumed by an enterprise that chooses to use vendor-provided cloud resources?
- A. Incompatible infrastructure
- B. Lack of skilled technical personnel
- C. Loss of certification
- D. Multitenant deployments
Answer: D
Explanation:
By choosing vendor-provided cloud resources, an enterprise inherently assumes the risk associated with multitenant deployments. Managing Cloud principles explain that public and some community cloud environments are built on shared infrastructure where multiple customers' workloads coexist on the same physical hardware.
Although strong logical isolation mechanisms are implemented by cloud providers, multitenancy introduces risks such as data leakage, side-channel attacks, and resource contention. These risks do not exist to the same degree in dedicated on-premises environments. Enterprises must therefore rely on the provider's ability to enforce isolation, access control, and monitoring.
The other options are not intrinsic cloud risks. Incompatible infrastructure can be addressed through architecture design, lack of skilled personnel is an internal organizational issue, and loss of certification relates to compliance management. Therefore, multitenant deployments represent the risk assumed when using vendor-provided cloud resources.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which security issue may occur when application programming interfaces (APIs) without sufficient validation are used in cloud services?
- A. Data breach
- B. Inefficient bandwidth utilization
- C. Crypto-shredding
- D. Perimeter security breach
Answer: A
Explanation:
A data breach may occur when APIs lack sufficient validation in cloud services. Managing Cloud documentation explains that APIs often serve as primary access points to cloud applications and data.
Without proper input validation, authentication, and authorization checks, APIs can be exploited to access sensitive data, bypass controls, or manipulate backend services. Attackers may inject malicious requests or abuse poorly secured endpoints to extract or alter data.
Inefficient bandwidth usage is a performance issue, perimeter breaches involve network defenses, and crypto- shredding is a data destruction technique. Therefore, data breach is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which phase in secure application design and development includes threat modeling?
- A. Define
- B. Develop
- C. Design
- D. Training
Answer: C
Explanation:
Threat modeling is performed during the Design phase of secure application development. Managing Cloud guidance explains that threat modeling evaluates application architecture, data flows, trust boundaries, and attack surfaces before development begins.
By identifying threats early, security controls can be built directly into the application design rather than added later. This reduces vulnerabilities and lowers remediation costs.
The define phase establishes requirements, training builds skills, and development focuses on coding.
Therefore, the design phase is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 80
An organization is conducting an external audit of the IT policies governing its production environment after moving all of its production systems to the cloud. Which IT policy will have a low priority in this environment?
- A. Acceptable use
- B. Software procurement
- C. Data classification
- D. Hardware management
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a cloud environment, responsibility forhardware managementshifts primarily to the cloud provider.
Customers no longer manage servers, storage devices, or physical networks directly. As a result, hardware management policies are less critical for customer audits compared to data classification, procurement, or acceptable use.
Data classification remains essential to secure sensitive information. Software procurement policies are important to control licensing and compliance. Acceptable use policies govern employee behavior in cloud environments.
While organizations may still need high-level oversight of hardware through contracts and SLAs, detailed hardware policies have a reduced role. Instead, emphasis shifts to managing the shared responsibility model, ensuring cloud provider controls complement customer governance.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which setting ensures that an attacker cannot read the information stored temporarily for use by another virtual machine (VM)?
- A. Encrypted network protocols
- B. Encrypted file system
- C. Dedicated memory
- D. Dedicated processor
Answer: C
Explanation:
Dedicated memoryallocation ensures isolation between virtual machines in a shared environment. Without memory isolation, remnants of one VM's operations might remain in physical memory and be accessible to another VM, leading to cross-tenant data leakage. Assigning dedicated memory prevents attackers from exploiting memory-sharing vulnerabilities.
Encrypted network protocols protect data in transit, not memory. Encrypted file systems safeguard storage, not volatile memory. A dedicated processor helps with performance and isolation of compute tasks but does not secure temporary memory contents.
Cloud environments are multi-tenant, which makes memory isolation a critical safeguard. By dedicating memory or enforcing strict hypervisor-level isolation, providers prevent data exposure between customers.
This aligns with best practices for virtualization security and the "resource pooling" characteristic of cloud computing, ensuring that shared infrastructure does not compromise confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which design pillar encompasses the ability to support development and run workloads effectively, gain insights into operations, and continuously improve supporting processes to deliver business value?
- A. Performance efficiency
- B. Operational excellence
- C. Sustainability
- D. Reliability
Answer: B
Explanation:
TheOperational Excellencepillar emphasizes practices that allow organizations to develop, deploy, and operate workloads effectively. It includes monitoring operations, responding to incidents, and continuously improving processes. By embedding feedback loops, organizations enhance agility and ensure that technology supports business value.
Performance efficiency deals with using computing resources efficiently, reliability ensures system availability, and sustainability focuses on environmental responsibility. While important, these do not encompass the process-driven improvements at the heart of operational excellence.
Operational excellence ensures that organizations can adapt quickly to changes, implement automation, and drive consistent improvements across cloud workloads. It is a key principle in cloud frameworks like AWS Well-Architected, Microsoft CAF, and Google's Reliability Engineering practices.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which term refers to taking an accurate account of a system's desired standard state so changes can be quickly detected for approval or remediation?
- A. Baselining
- B. Patch management
- C. Deployment
- D. Capacity management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Baselining is the process of establishing a reference point for the standard configuration of systems, networks, or applications. This baseline represents the approved, secure state. By continuously comparing the current environment to the baseline, organizations can detect deviations, unauthorized changes, or misconfigurations.
Patch management involves updating systems, deployment refers to installing new systems, and capacity management focuses on resource planning. While important, these do not establish a standard state for comparison.
Baselining is essential for change management and security auditing. It supports configuration management databases (CMDBs), intrusion detection, and compliance requirements. When deviations are detected, they can be escalated for remediation or formally approved through change control processes.
NEW QUESTION # 84
An organization is undergoing an ISO 27001 audit that includes a software as a service (SaaS) solution within scope, and the auditor has requested evidence of controls. What evidence should the organization provide the auditor?
- A. Operating system patch logs
- B. Network firewall rules
- C. Physical diagram of the data center
- D. Provider compliance attestation
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a SaaS solution is included within the scope of an ISO 27001 audit, the organization should provide the cloud provider's compliance attestation as evidence of controls. Managing Cloud guidance explains that in the SaaS model, the provider manages infrastructure, platform, and application-level controls.
Because customers do not manage operating systems, firewalls, or physical data centers in SaaS, they cannot supply direct technical evidence for those controls. Instead, third-party audit reports and attestations demonstrate that the provider has implemented appropriate security controls.
Firewall rules, OS patch logs, and physical diagrams are not accessible to SaaS customers. Therefore, provider compliance attestation is the correct evidence.
NEW QUESTION # 85
An organization creates a plan for long-term cloud storage of its backup data. What should the organization address to avoid losing access to its data?
- A. Key management
- B. Change tracking
- C. Regulatory compliance
- D. Quantum computing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most critical concern in long-term cloud storage iskey management. If encryption keys are lost, corrupted, or improperly rotated, the organization will lose the ability to decrypt its own data, rendering backups unusable. This issue is particularly serious because cloud storage almost always relies on encryption to secure sensitive or regulated information.
While regulatory compliance, quantum threats, and change tracking are important, none directly prevent permanent data loss. The reliability of key management ensures that access to long-term archival data is preserved across changes in personnel, technology, and vendors.
Best practices include using centralized key management systems (such as Hardware Security Modules or cloud Key Management Services), applying role-based controls, and performing periodic key rotation and escrow. Addressing key management in the backup plan ensures that data will remain accessible for years or decades, regardless of technological shifts.
NEW QUESTION # 86
A company is interested in tokenization as an alternative to protecting data without encryption. The application will soon store the token. Which step should occur immediately before this action?
- A. An authorized application requests the token.
- B. The tokenization server generates the token for the application.
- C. The tokenization server returns the token to the application.
- D. Data is sent to the tokenization server.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Before an application can store a token, it must first receive the token from the tokenization server.
Managing Cloud guidance outlines that tokenization workflows follow a defined sequence: the application submits sensitive data, the tokenization server generates a token, and then the token is returned to the application.
Only after the token has been successfully returned can the application replace the original sensitive data and store the token instead. This ensures that sensitive data is not retained within the application environment, reducing exposure and simplifying compliance requirements.
The other steps occur earlier in the process. An authorized application must request tokenization, and the sensitive data must be sent to the tokenization server before a token can be generated. Therefore, the immediate step before storing the token is the tokenization server returning the token to the application.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which subject matter expert is relied upon to draft policies related to the organization's operations in the cloud?
- A. Attorneys
- B. Senior management
- C. Risk management
- D. CCSP practitioner
Answer: D
Explanation:
A CCSP practitioner is the subject matter expert relied upon to draft policies related to an organization's cloud operations. Managing Cloud principles explain that cloud security specialists possess technical, architectural, and governance expertise specific to cloud environments.
CCSP practitioners understand shared responsibility models, cloud risk management, identity and access controls, data protection, and compliance requirements. This expertise enables them to develop practical and effective cloud-specific security policies.
Attorneys provide legal guidance, risk management supports analysis, and senior management approves policies but does not draft them. Therefore, a CCSP practitioner is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which release management term describes the process from code implementation to code review and approval to automated testing and then to production deployment?
- A. Pipeline
- B. Baseline
- C. Framework
- D. Iteration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Apipelinerefers to the structured process of moving code from development to production, encompassing implementation, review, automated testing, and deployment. In DevOps, this is known as a CI/CD pipeline (Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment).
An iteration refers to a development cycle, a baseline represents a stable reference configuration, and a framework provides structure but not a deployment sequence. Only pipeline accurately captures the sequential, automated flow of code into production.
Pipelines enhance efficiency, consistency, and quality assurance by automating repetitive tasks, reducing human error, and ensuring that code changes are validated before reaching production. They are essential for modern cloud-native applications where rapid deployment is expected.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which business area in the enterprise risk management (ERM) strategy is concerned with formal risk assessments when forming new or renewing existing vendor relationships?
- A. Quality assurance
- B. Procurement
- C. Software development
- D. Marketing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Theprocurementfunction is directly responsible for vendor selection and contract management, including risk assessments of new or renewed vendor relationships. This ensures that third-party providers meet security, compliance, and performance requirements.
Software development and quality assurance focus on product creation and validation. Marketing manages branding and outreach. None of these directly involve evaluating external vendor risk.
Procurement integrates due diligence, contract clauses, and performance monitoring into enterprise risk management. This reduces exposure to third-party threats and ensures compliance with frameworks such as ISO 27036 (supplier relationships) and NIST vendor risk management guidelines.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which cloud storage architecture enhances the opportunity for data policy enforcement such as data loss prevention (DLP)?
- A. Database
- B. Flash
- C. Ephemeral
- D. Object
Answer: D
Explanation:
Object storage architecture enhances the opportunity for enforcing data policies such as data loss prevention (DLP). Managing Cloud principles explain that object storage supports extensive metadata tagging, which allows organizations to classify data, apply sensitivity labels, and enforce security policies directly at the storage level.
By leveraging metadata, DLP solutions can identify sensitive information, apply access restrictions, trigger alerts, or prevent unauthorized data movement. Policies can be consistently enforced across large-scale cloud environments without relying on application-level controls. This makes object storage particularly effective for managing unstructured data such as documents, media files, and backups.
The other options do not provide the same level of policy enforcement. Flash storage focuses on performance, databases rely on structured schemas, and ephemeral storage is temporary and unsuitable for persistent policy enforcement. Therefore, object storage is the most effective architecture for enabling strong data governance and DLP controls in cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION # 91
A breach caused by lack of security management resulted in a civil lawsuit. The organization must communicate with the entity that is responsible for performing adequate oversight. Who should be contacted?
- A. High-level government agencies
- B. Board of director members
- C. IT department
- D. Cloud customer
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the event of a civil lawsuit resulting from inadequate security management, the organization must communicate with the board of directors. Managing Cloud guidance explains that the board of directors holds ultimate responsibility for governance, oversight, and risk management within an organization.
The board ensures that appropriate policies, controls, and management structures are in place to protect organizational assets and comply with legal obligations. In legal matters, the board must be informed to oversee response strategies, legal counsel engagement, and corrective actions.
The IT department manages technical controls but does not provide organizational oversight. High-level government agencies are regulators, not internal oversight bodies. Therefore, board members are the correct entity to contact.
NEW QUESTION # 92
An organization wants to ensure that all entities trust any certificate generated internally in the organization.
What should be used to generate these certificates?
- A. The organization's certificate repository server
- B. Individual systems' private keys
- C. Individual users' private keys
- D. The organization's certificate authority server
Answer: D
Explanation:
Trust in digital certificates comes from their issuance by aCertificate Authority (CA). A CA is a trusted entity that validates identities and signs certificates. In internal environments, organizations often operate a private CAto issue certificates for users, systems, and services.
If certificates were generated by individual private keys or systems without central authority, there would be no unified trust chain, and validating authenticity across the organization would be impossible. A certificate repository server only distributes certificates but cannot establish trust.
By using an organizational CA server, all certificates are linked to a root of trust. Systems configured to trust the organization's CA will trust any certificate it issues. This allows secure internal communications (TLS, VPN, email signing) and ensures scalability as new services come online. It also supports compliance with enterprise PKI policies.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which type of cloud security vulnerability is static application security testing (SAST) likely to find?
- A. Embedded credentials
- B. Hypervisor vulnerabilities
- C. Software misconfiguration
- D. Run-time vulnerabilities
Answer: A
Explanation:
Static application security testing (SAST) is most likely to identify embedded credentials. Managing Cloud principles explain that SAST analyzes application source code, binaries, or bytecode without executing the program.
Because SAST inspects code structure and logic, it can detect hard-coded passwords, API keys, and secrets embedded directly in application files. These vulnerabilities pose significant risk if exposed in cloud environments.
Software misconfiguration and runtime vulnerabilities require execution context, and hypervisor vulnerabilities exist outside application code. Therefore, embedded credentials are best detected through SAST.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which device identifies and stops attack-based commands from executing on a structured query language (SQL) server?
- A. Host-based firewall
- B. Database activity monitor
- C. Hardware security module
- D. Cloud access and security broker
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Database Activity Monitor (DAM) is specifically designed to identify and stop attack-based commands from executing on a SQL server. Managing Cloud documentation explains that DAM solutions monitor database traffic in real time, inspecting queries and commands for malicious patterns such as SQL injection, privilege escalation, and unauthorized data access attempts.
Unlike traditional firewalls, which primarily filter network traffic, a DAM understands database-specific protocols and SQL command structures. This allows it to detect abnormal or unauthorized queries that may bypass perimeter defenses. When a suspicious command is identified, the DAM can alert administrators, block the execution, or log the activity for forensic analysis.
The other options do not provide this level of database-specific protection. A host-based firewall controls traffic to and from a server but does not analyze SQL commands. A hardware security module focuses on key management and cryptographic operations. A cloud access and security broker enforces security policies between cloud consumers and providers but does not inspect SQL commands directly. Therefore, the database activity monitor is the correct device for stopping attack-based SQL commands.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which concept focuses on operating highly available workloads in the cloud?
- A. Security
- B. Resource hierarchy
- C. Reliability
- D. Operational excellence
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reliabilityin cloud design ensures workloads can recover quickly from disruptions and continue operating as expected. This concept focuses on high availability, fault tolerance, and disaster recovery. Reliability requires implementing redundancy, backup strategies, and robust monitoring.
Security ensures data protection, operational excellence covers continuous improvement, and resource hierarchy refers to organizational structures, but none focus specifically on availability and resilience.
By prioritizing reliability, organizations design cloud architectures capable of withstanding failures at multiple layers-compute, storage, networking, and even regions. This design principle ensures customer trust and compliance with service-level agreements.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which regulation provides a guide for implementing the risk management framework?
- A. ISO 31000:2009
- B. ISO 27001
- C. NIST SP 800-37
- D. PCI-DSS
Answer: C
Explanation:
NIST SP 800-37 provides a detailed guide for implementing the Risk Management Framework (RMF).
Managing Cloud documentation explains that this framework offers a structured process for integrating security and risk management into system development and operational activities.
NIST SP 800-37 outlines steps such as categorizing systems, selecting and implementing security controls, assessing effectiveness, authorizing systems, and continuous monitoring. This lifecycle-based approach helps organizations manage risk in cloud and traditional environments consistently.
ISO 31000 provides general risk management principles, ISO 27001 focuses on information security management systems, and PCI DSS is a compliance standard. Therefore, NIST SP 800-37 is the correct guide for implementing the RMF.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Which option should a cloud architect recommend to an organization looking to simplify development and management of applications?
- A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
- D. Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Platform as a Service (PaaS) is the recommended option for organizations seeking to simplify application development and management. Managing Cloud guidance explains that PaaS provides a complete development environment, including operating systems, runtime environments, middleware, databases, and development tools.
By abstracting infrastructure and platform management, PaaS allows developers to focus exclusively on building, testing, and deploying applications. Tasks such as patching, scaling, load balancing, and environment configuration are handled by the cloud provider, reducing complexity and administrative effort.
DaaS focuses on delivering virtual desktops, IaaS requires customers to manage operating systems and applications, and SaaS provides fully developed applications rather than development platforms. Therefore, PaaS best meets the requirement of simplifying development and management.
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which U.S. law requires all publicly traded corporations in the United States to provide information about their financial status and implements controls to ensure the accuracy of the disclosed information?
- A. The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- B. The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act
- C. The Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data (CLOUD) Act
- D. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
Answer: B
Explanation:
TheSarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act of 2002was enacted to restore investor confidence after major corporate accounting scandals. It requires publicly traded corporations to maintain accurate financial reporting and implement internal controls to safeguard the integrity of disclosed information.
GLBA focuses on protecting consumer financial data, GDPR is a European regulation governing privacy, and the CLOUD Act addresses cross-border law enforcement access to data. Only SOX directly mandates financial disclosure and corporate accountability.
SOX compliance includes maintaining audit trails, securing data integrity, and ensuring that executives certify financial statements. Failure to comply carries severe penalties, both civil and criminal. For cloud environments, SOX compliance extends to ensuring IT systems used for financial data are secure, monitored, and auditable.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which strategy will reduce the impact of risk in the business continuity and disaster recovery planning process?
- A. Acceptance
- B. Mitigation
- C. Avoidance
- D. Insurance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk mitigation reduces the impact of risk within BCDR planning. Managing Cloud principles explain that mitigation involves implementing controls and safeguards to lessen the likelihood or severity of adverse events.
Examples include redundancy, backups, failover mechanisms, and monitoring. These measures do not eliminate risk but significantly reduce operational disruption and data loss when incidents occur.
Insurance transfers financial risk, avoidance eliminates activities, and acceptance acknowledges risk without action. Therefore, mitigation is the correct strategy for reducing impact.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which strategy provides the highest overall cost savings for an organization implementing a business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) plan?
- A. Implement cross-site replication.
- B. Deploy a hot cloud site.
- C. Migrate local backups to tape.
- D. Move all services to the cloud.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Moving all services to the cloud provides the highest overall cost savings for organizations implementing BCDR. Managing Cloud guidance explains that cloud-based services reduce capital expenditures, eliminate the need for secondary physical data centers, and leverage on-demand scalability.
Cloud platforms offer built-in redundancy, geographic distribution, and automated recovery capabilities that significantly lower the cost of maintaining separate disaster recovery infrastructure. Pay-as-you-go pricing ensures organizations only pay for resources when needed, further reducing operational expenses.
Hot sites and cross-site replication incur ongoing costs, while tape backups offer lower cost but do not support rapid recovery. Therefore, migrating services to the cloud delivers the most comprehensive cost savings.
NEW QUESTION # 101
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