Best Way To Study For CompTIA 220-1102 Exam Brilliant 220-1102 Exam Questions PDF
Updated Verified Pass 220-1102 Exam - Real Questions and Answers
NEW QUESTION # 43
A user reports that after a recent software deployment to upgrade applications, the user can no longer use the Testing program.
However, other employees can successfully use the Testing program.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the information in each tab to verify the results of the deployment and resolve any issues discovered by selecting the:
Index number of the Event Viewer issue
First command to resolve the issue
Second command to resolve the issue
BSOD
Commands:
Event Viewer:
System Error:
Answer:
Explanation:
see the answer below in explanation.
Explanation:
The user is experiencing a system error that prevents them from using the Testing program. The error message indicates that the file MSVCP100.dll is missing from the computer. This file is part of the Microsoft Visual C++ 2010 Redistributable Package, whichis required by some applications to run properly. The error may have occurred due to a corrupted or incomplete software deployment.
To resolve this issue, the user needs to restore the missing file and register it in the system. One possible way to do this is to copy the file from another computer that has the Testing program installed and working, and then use the regsvr32 command to register it. The steps are as follows:
On another computer (User-PC02) that has the Testing program installed and working, locate the file MSVCP100.dll in the folder C:\Program Files\Testing.
Share the folder C:\Windows\System32 on User-PC02 by right-clicking on it, selecting Properties, then Sharing, then Advanced Sharing, then checking Share this folder, then clicking OK.
On the user's computer (User-PC01), open a command prompt as an administrator by clicking Start, typing cmd, right-clicking on Command Prompt, and selecting Run as administrator.
In the command prompt, type the following command to copy the file MSVCP100.dll from User-PC02 to User-PC01: copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "\\User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" After the file is copied, type the following command to register it in the system: regsvr32 msvcp100.dll Restart the user's computer and try to run the Testing program again.
Therefore, based on the instructions given by the user, the correct answers are:
Select Event Viewer Issue: 2187
Select First Command: copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "\\User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" Select Second Command: regsvr32 msvcp100.dll
NEW QUESTION # 44
A customer reports that an Android phone will not allow the use of contactless electronic payment. Which of the following needs to be enabled to resolve the issue?
- A. Nearby share
- B. Wi-Fi
- C. Bluetooth
- D. NFC
Answer: D
Explanation:
Detailed
To enable contactless payment, NFC (Near Field Communication) (Option C) needs to be enabled. NFC is the technology used in most mobile payment systems to enable close-range communication between the phone and a payment terminal.
Wi-Fi (Option A) and Bluetooth (Option D) are unrelated to contactless payments.
Nearby share (Option B) is a file-sharing feature, not a payment technology.
CompTIA A+ Core 2 Reference:
2.7 - Explain common mobile device security settings, including enabling NFC for mobile payments.
NEW QUESTION # 45
A technician is troubleshooting an issue with a computer that contains sensitive information. The technician determines the computer needs to be taken off site for repair. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A. Get authorization from the manager.
- B. Remove the HDD and then send the computer for repair.
- C. Check corporate polices for guidance.
- D. Delete the sensitive information before the computer leaves the building.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The next step that the technician should do before taking the computer off site for repair is to get authorization from the manager. Getting authorization from the manager is important because it ensures that the technician has permission and approval to remove the computer from the premises and perform the repair work off site. Getting authorization from the manager can also help document and communicate the reason and duration of the repair and avoid any misunderstanding or conflict with the user or the organization. Removing the HDD and then sending the computer for repair may not be feasible or necessary if the issue is not related to the HDD or if the HDD contains essential data or software for the repair. Checking corporate policies for guidance may be a good step but it does not replace getting authorization from the manager who is responsible for the computer and its data. Deleting the sensitive information before the computer leaves the building may not be possible or advisable if the issue prevents access to the data or if the data is needed for troubleshooting or recovery purposes. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 5.1
NEW QUESTION # 46
A technician is creating a location on a Windows workstation for a customer to store meeting minutes. Which of the following commands should the technician use?
- A. c: \minutes
- B. rmdir
- C. dir
- D. md
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The command md stands for make directory and is used to create a new directory or folder in the current location. In this case, the technician can use md minutes to create a folder named minutes in the C: drive. The other commands are not relevant for this task. c: \minutes is not a command but a path to a folder. dir is used to display a list of files and folders in the current directory. rmdir is used to remove or delete an existing directory or folder.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A technician is trying to encrypt a single folder on a PC. Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this task?
- A. BitLocker
- B. EFS
- C. FAT32
- D. exFAT
Answer: B
Explanation:
EFS (Encrypting File System) is a feature that allows a user to encrypt a single folder or file on a Windows PC. It uses a public key encryption system to protect the data from unauthorized access. FAT32 and exFAT are file system formats that do not support encryption. BitLocker is a feature that encrypts the entire drive, not a single folder or file. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-efs https://www.comptia.org
/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 48
A technician is trying to connect to a user's laptop in order to securely install updates. Given the following information about the laptop:
Which of the following should the technician do to connect via RDP?
- A. Open port 3389 on the Windows firewall.
- B. Change the IP address on the user's laptop.
- C. Change the subnet mask on the user's laptop.
- D. Confirm the user can ping the default gateway.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In order to connect to a user's laptop via RDP, the technician should open port 3389 on the Windows firewall. This is because RDP uses port 3389 for communication12. The other options are not necessary or relevant for establishing an RDP connection.
* Confirming the user can ping the default gateway is not required for RDP, as it only tests the network connectivity between the user's laptop and the router. RDP works over the internet, so the technician should be able to ping the user's laptop directly using its IP address3.
* Changing the IP address on the user's laptop is not needed for RDP, as long as the IP address is valid and not conflicting with another device on the network. The user's laptop has a valid IP address of
192.168.0.45, which belongs to the same subnet as the gateway (192.168.0.1) and the subnet mask (255.255.255.0)4.
* Changing the subnet mask on the user's laptop is not required for RDP, as long as the subnet mask matches the network configuration. The user's laptop has a correct subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which defines a network with 254 possible hosts4.
References:
1: [What is RDP and How Does It Work? - CompTIA] 2: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives
- CompTIA 3: [Ping (networking utility) - Wikipedia] 4: [IP address - Wikipedia] : What is RDP and How Does It Work? - CompTIA : CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives - CompTIA : Ping (networking utility) - Wikipedia) : IP address - Wikipedia
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following device types would a technician consider a security concern?
- A. NIC
- B. PoE
- C. IoT
- D. LC
Answer: C
Explanation:
IoT (Internet of Things) devices are often considered a security concern due to their typically weak security protocols and the fact that many IoT manufacturers do not prioritize security when designing these devices.
These devices often lack the capability to be regularly patched or updated, which leaves them vulnerable to exploitation by attackers. The multitude of IoT devices, such as smart thermostats, cameras, and even light bulbs, when connected to a network, can serve as entry points for cyberattacks if not secured properly. In contrast, NICs (Network Interface Cards), PoE (Power over Ethernet), and LC (a type of fiber optic connector) do not inherently pose the same level of security risk as IoT devices because they are more established technologies and typically have better security practices in place.
References:
CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives - 220-1102, Domain 2.7: Security (CompTIA) (ProfMesser)
NEW QUESTION # 50
A user is attempting to make a purchase at a store using a phone. The user places the phone on the payment pad, but the device does not recognize the phone. The user attempts to restart the phone but still has the same results. Which of the following should the user do to resolve the issue?
- A. Verify that NFC is enabled.
- B. Connect to the store's Wi-Fi network.
- C. Turn off airplane mode while at the register.
- D. Enable Bluetooth on the phone.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The user should verify that NFC is enabled on their phone. NFC is a technology that allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are in close proximity2.
NFC (Near Field Communication) technology allows a phone to wirelessly communicate with a payment terminal or other compatible device. In order to use NFC to make a payment or transfer information, the feature must be enabled on the phone. Therefore, the user should verify that NFC is enabled on their phone before attempting to make a payment with it. The other options, such as turning off airplane mode, connecting to Wi-Fi, or enabling Bluetooth, do not pertain to the NFC feature and are unlikely to resolve the issue. This information is covered in the Comptia A+ Core2 documents/guide under the Mobile Devices section.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A customer recently experienced a power outage at a SOHO. The customer does not think the components are connected properly. A print job continued running for several minutes after the power failed, but the customer was not able to interact with the computer. Once the UPS stopped beeping, all functioning devices also turned off. In case of a future power failure, the customer wants to have the most time available to save cloud documents and shut down the computer without losing any data.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
UPS > Surge protector = Computer, wifi router, cable modem
Surge protector = wallOutlet , printer and scanner
NEW QUESTION # 52
A technician is partitioning a hard disk. The five primary partitions should contain 4TB of free space. Which of the following partition styles should the technician use to partition the device?
- A. MBR
- B. FAT32
- C. GPT
- D. EFS
Answer: C
Explanation:
GPT is the correct answer for this question. GPT stands for GUID Partition Table, and it is a partition style that supports up to 128 primary partitions and up to 18 exabytes of disk size per partition. GPT also uses a unique identifier for each partition and provides better data protection and recovery. GPT is suitable for partitioning a hard disk that has five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each. EFS, MBR, and FAT32 are not correct answers for this question. EFS stands for Encrypting File System, and it is a feature that allows encrypting files and folders on NTFS volumes. EFS is not a partition style, but rather a file system attribute.
MBR stands for Master Boot Record, and it is an older partition style that supports up to four primary partitions and up to 2TB of disk size per partition. MBR cannot handle five primary partitions with 4TB of free space each. FAT32 stands for File Allocation Table 32, and it is a file system that supports up to 32GB of disk size per partition and up to 4GB of file size. FAT32 is not a partition style, but rather a file system type. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 14 CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam ..., page 105
NEW QUESTION # 53
A company is recycling old hard drives and wants to quickly reprovision the drives for reuse. Which of the following data destruction methods should the company use?
- A. Low-level wiping
- B. Standard formatting
- C. Deleting
- D. Degaussing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Low-level wiping is the best data destruction method for recycling old hard drives for reuse. Low-level wiping is a process that overwrites every bit of data on a hard drive with zeros or random patterns, making it impossible to recover any data from the drive. Low-level wiping also restores the drive to its factory state, removing any bad sectors or errors that may have accumulated over time. Low-level wiping can be done using specialized software tools or hardware devices that connect to the drive. Degaussing, standard formatting, and deleting are not suitable data destruction methods for recycling old hard drives for reuse. Degaussing is a process that exposes a hard drive to a strong magnetic field, destroying both the data and the drive itself. Degaussing renders the drive unusable for reuse. Standard formatting is a process that erases the data on a hard drive by removing the file system structure, but it does not overwrite the data itself. Standard formatting leaves some data recoverable using forensic tools or software utilities. Deleting is a process that removes the data from a hard drive by marking it as free space, but it does not erase or overwrite the data itself. Deleting leaves most data recoverable using undelete tools or software utilities. Reference:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 15 CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam ..., page 105
NEW QUESTION # 54
Before leaving work, a user wants to see the traffic conditions for the commute home. Which of the following tools can the user employ to schedule the browser to automatically launch a traffic website at 4:45 p.m.?
- A. Eventvwr.msc
- B. perfmon.msc
- C. lusrmgr.msc
- D. taskschd.msc
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The user can use the Task Scheduler (taskschd.msc) to schedule the browser to automatically launch a traffic website at 4:45 p.m. The Task Scheduler is a tool in Windows that allows users to schedule tasks to run automatically at specified times or in response to certain events.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A technician is troubleshooting a computer with a suspected short in the power supply. Which of the following is the FIRST step the technician should take?
- A. Place components on an ESD mat.
- B. Place the PC on a grounded workbench.
- C. Put on an ESD strap
- D. Disconnect the power before servicing the PC.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first step a technician should take when troubleshooting a computer with a suspected short in the power supply is B. Disconnect the power before servicing the PC. This is to prevent any electrical shock or damage to the components. A power supply can be dangerous even when unplugged, as capacitors can maintain a line voltage charge for a long time1. Therefore, it is important to disconnect the power cord and press the power button to discharge any residual power before opening the case2. The other steps are also important for safety and proper diagnosis, but they should be done after disconnecting the power.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A technician needs to track evidence for a forensic investigation on a Windows computer. Which of the following describes this process?
- A. Valid license
- B. Data retention requirements
- C. Chain of custody
- D. Material safety data sheet
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 57
The Chief Executive Officer at a bark recently saw a news report about a high-profile cybercrime where a remote-access tool that the bank uses for support was also used in this crime. The report stated that attackers were able to brute force passwords to access systems. Which of the following would BEST limit the bark's risk? (Select TWO)
- A. Block all support accounts from logging in from foreign countries
- B. Enforce account lockouts after five bad password attempts
- C. Purchase a password manager for remote-access tool users
- D. Configure a replacement remote-access tool for support cases.
- E. Limit remote access to destinations inside the corporate network
- F. Enable multifactor authentication for each support account
Answer: B,F
NEW QUESTION # 58
An organization is creating guidelines for the incorporation of generative Al solutions. In which of the following would these guidelines be published?
* Standard operating procedure
- A. Acceptable use policy
- B. Security protocols
- C. Data flow diagram
Answer: B
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document that defines the rules and expectations for the users of a system, network, or service. It typically covers topics such as the purpose, scope, responsibilities, and restrictions of using the system, network, or service1. An AUP is a suitable place to publish the guidelines for the incorporation of generative AI solutions, as it can inform the users of the benefits, risks, and ethical implications of using such tools. It can also specify the conditions and limitations for using generative AI solutions, such as the types of data, content, and applications that are allowed or prohibited, the security and privacy requirements, the legal and regulatory compliance, and the accountability and reporting mechanisms23.
References: 1 What is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)? - Definition from Techopedia(https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/84168/the-difference-of-security-policy-and-acceptabl on the use of Generative AI - Canada.ca(https://www.canada.ca/en/government/system/digital-government/digital-government-innovations/res Considerations for Developing Organizational Generative AI Policies - ISACA(https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/atisaca/2023/volume-44/key-consideration
NEW QUESTION # 59
A user in a SOHO asks an off-site, remote technician to connect securely to the user's laptop. The technician is able to connect to the VPN but is unable to connect to the user's laptop. Which of the following settings should the technician review?
- A. Firewall
- B. DHCP pool
- C. Wireless protocol
- D. Content filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a technician is unable to connect to a laptop over a VPN, one of the most common reasons is that the firewall settings on either the laptop or the network are blocking the connection.
* Wireless protocol: Unrelated, as the technician is already connected to the VPN.
* DHCP pool: Unlikely to be the issue, as it deals with IP address assignment.
* Content filtering: Typically involves filtering web content, not affecting direct connections.
* Firewall: The correct setting to review, as it may block the necessary ports or services required for remote access.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives [220-1102] - 2.3: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common wired and wireless network problems.
NEW QUESTION # 60
An administrator responded to an incident where an employee copied financial data to a portable hard drive and then left the company with the data. The administrator documented the movement of the evidence. Which of the following concepts did the administrator demonstrate?
- A. Implementing data protection policies
- B. Informing law enforcement
- C. Creating a summary of the incident
- D. Preserving chain of custody
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Preserving chain of custody is a concept that refers to the documentation and tracking of who handled, accessed, modified, or transferred a piece of evidence, when, where, why, and how. Preserving chain of custody can help establish the authenticity, integrity, and reliability of the evidence, as well as prevent tampering, alteration, or loss of the evidence. An administrator who documented the movement of the evidence demonstrated the concept of preserving chain of custody. Implementing data protection policies, informing law enforcement, and creating a summary of the incident are not concepts that describe the action of documenting the movement of the evidence.
NEW QUESTION # 61
An organization's critical database files were attacked with ransomware. The company refuses to pay the ransom for a decryption key. All traces of the infection have been removed from the underlying servers.
Which of the following should the company do next?
- A. Fully patch the server operating systems hosting the fileshares.
- B. Change the files to be read-only.
- C. Scan all of the infected files with up-to-date, anti-malware cleaning software.
- D. Restore critical data from backup.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When an organization refuses to pay the ransom for a decryption key after a ransomware attack, and all traces of the infection have been removed, the next critical step is:
* Restore critical data from backup:This is the most effective way to recover from a ransomware attack without paying the ransom. Assuming the organization has good backup practices, the backups should be free from infection and can be restored to get the systems operational again.
* Scan all of the infected files with up-to-date, anti-malware cleaning software:This step is important
* during the infection removal process but does not address restoring the encrypted files.
* Fully patch the server operating systems hosting the fileshares:While this is necessary to prevent future attacks, it does not recover the encrypted files.
* Change the files to be read-only:This will not help recover the encrypted data.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.8: Given a scenario use common data destruction and disposal methods.
Best practices for ransomware recovery.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A network technician is deploying a new machine in a small branch office that does not have a DHCP server.
The new machine automatically receives the IP address of 169.254.0.2 and is unable to communicate with the rest of the network. Which of the following would restore communication?
* Static entry
- A. NTP specification
- B. APIPA address
- C. ARP table
Answer: C
Explanation:
A static entry is the best option to restore communication for the new machine in a small branch office that does not have a DHCP server. A static entry means manually configuring the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server for the network adapter of the machine. A static entry ensures that the machine has a valid and unique IP address that matches the network configuration and can communicate with the rest of the network.
The new machine automatically receives the IP address of 169.254.0.2 because it uses APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing), which is a feature that enables computers to self-assign an IP address when a DHCP server is not available. However, APIPA only works for local communication within the same subnet, and does not provide a default gateway or a DNS server. Therefore, the new machine is unable to communicate with the rest of the network, which may be on a different subnet or require a gateway or a DNS server to access.
The other options are not related to restoring communication for the new machine. ARP table is a cache that stores the mapping between IP addresses and MAC addresses for the devices on the network. NTP specification is a protocol that synchronizes the clocks of the devices on the network.
References:
* CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives1
* CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide2
* What is APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)? - Study-CCNA3
* How to Configure a Static IP Address in Windows and OS X4
NEW QUESTION # 63
A company's help desk receives numerous calls from employees reporting issues related to a current security breach. Which of the following steps should the help desk team take to document the breach?
- A. Record the details in the ticketing system.
- B. Discuss the incident with the company's legal team.
- C. Take screenshots and attach them to the root cause analysis.
- D. List the details in the company's knowledge base.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the event of a security breach, documenting the incident is crucial for tracking, analysis, and resolution. The appropriate steps should ensure thorough documentation and communication:
* Option A: Record the details in the ticketing system.Correct Answer. The ticketing system is the primary tool for IT support to track incidents. Recording the details in the ticketing system ensures that all relevant information is documented systematically, can be easily accessed, and tracked through the resolution process.
* This aligns with best practices in incident documentation and support systems information management as outlined in the CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Objectives, Section 4.1.
* Option B: Take screenshots and attach them to the root cause analysis.While screenshots can be useful, the first step should be to record the details in the ticketing system. Screenshots may be added later as supplementary information.
* Option C: Discuss the incident with the company's legal team.Involving the legal team is important for certain aspects of a security breach, but the initial step should still be to document the incident in the ticketing system.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A technician is moving a Windows workstation from the accounting department to the sales department and needs to update the IP and gateway settings. Which of the following Control Panel utilities should the technician use?
- A. User Accounts
- B. Network and Sharing Center
- C. Device Manager
- D. Programs and Features
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The Network and Sharing Center is a Control Panel utility that allows users to view and modify network settings, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS servers, and network profiles. To change the IP and gateway settings of a Windows workstation, the technician can follow these steps:
Open the Network and Sharing Center by clicking on the network icon in the system tray or by searching for it in the Start menu.
Click on Change adapter settings on the left sidebar.
Right-click on the network adapter that is connected to the network and select Properties.
Double-click on Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) or Internet Protocol Version 6 (TCP/IPv6) depending on the network protocol used.
Select Use the following IP address and enter the desired IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for the workstation. Alternatively, select Obtain an IP address automatically if the network uses DHCP to assign IP addresses dynamically.
Click OK to save the changes and close the dialog boxes.
References:
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide (220-1102), page 2171
How to change the IP address in Windows 10 and Windows 11 (4 ways), section 12
NEW QUESTION # 65
A technician installs a Bluetooth headset for a user. During testing, the sound is still coming from the speaker on the computer. The technician verifies the headset shows up in Device Manager. Which of the following would the technician most likely do to fix this issue?
- A. Replace the battery on the headset, and try again later.
- B. Change the headset as the default device in sound settings.
- C. Update the drivers for the wireless headset.
- D. Verify that the sound is not muted in the control panel.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Core 2 220-1102, Objective 1.7 (Bluetooth and Audio Device Configuration).
NEW QUESTION # 66
A manager reports that staff members often forget the passwords to their mobile devices and applications. Which of the following should the systems administrator do to reduce the number of help desk tickets submitted?
- A. Enable multifactor authentication.
- B. Increase the failed log-in threshold.
- C. Implement a single sign-on with biometrics.
- D. Remove complex password requirements.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security measure that requires users to provide multiple pieces of evidence when logging in to an account or system. This can include a combination of something the user knows (e.g. a password or PIN), something the user has (e.g. a security token or smartphone) and something the user is (e.g. biometrics such as a fingerprint or face scan). By enabling MFA, the systems administrator can ensure that users are required to provide multiple pieces of evidence when logging in, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to gain access to the system. This can help reduce the number of help desk tickets submitted due to forgotten passwords.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following security methods supports the majority of current WI-Fl-capable devices Without sacrificing security?
- A. TACACS+
- B. MAC filtenng
- C. WPA3
- D. RADIUS
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 68
......
To pass the CompTIA 220-1102 (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2) exam, candidates must demonstrate their technical abilities in a number of different areas. These areas include installing and configuring operating systems, setting up and maintaining network connections, troubleshooting hardware and software issues, and securing computers and networks against cyber threats. Candidates must also be able to work with mobile devices, including smartphones and tablets, and be familiar with remote access technologies.
Passing the CompTIA 220-1102 exam requires a strong understanding of the concepts covered in the exam and practical knowledge of how to apply them in real-world scenarios. Candidates must also possess good analytical and problem-solving skills and be able to work well under pressure. 220-1102 exam is challenging, but with proper preparation and study, candidates can increase their chances of passing on the first attempt.
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